UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 01 to February 07, 2026

(b) making a preferential commerce settlement between India and the Arab League.

(c) endorsing a typical foreign money framework for West Asian economies.

(d) the necessity to uphold the “sovereignty, unity, and territorial integrity” of Sudan, Somalia and Libya, and “rejects interference” of their inner affairs.

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

A query on the Delhi Declaration on the India-Arab International Ministers’ Assembly demonstrates this transfer towards evaluating consciousness of normative views resembling sovereignty, non-interference, and territorial integrity, all of that are important to India’s West Asian outreach.

Clarification

— India hosted 22 members of the League of Arab States (AL) for the second India-Arab International Ministers Assembly, 10 years after the primary iteration in Bahrain.

— This assembly occurred amid escalating tensions between Iran and the US, a rising rift between Saudi Arabia and UAE, and the US President Donald Trump-led Board of Peace making an attempt a brand new strategy to resolving the Israel-Palestine query.

— In a joint assertion — the Delhi Declaration — after the assembly, India and the Arab League clarified their positions on various points, aside from commitments to improve cooperation.

— The Delhi Declaration uniformly focuses on the necessity to uphold the “sovereignty, unity, and territorial integrity” of Sudan, Somalia and Libya, and “rejects interference” of their inner affairs.

— All three nations have been central to the rising rift between two camps within the Center East — one led by Saudi Arabia because the principal energy supported by many of the Arab League, and one led by the UAE and Israel, and supported by the US.

Due to this fact, choice (d) is the right reply.

QUESTION 2

Take into account the next pairs:

1. Bond – A bond is a debt instrument by which an investor loans cash to an entity, which borrows the funds for an outlined time frame at a variable or mounted rate of interest.

2. Authorities Safety – These are cash market devices, are brief time period debt devices issued by the Authorities of India and are presently issued in three tenors, specifically, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.

3. Treasury Payments – These are tradeable devices issued by the Central Authorities or the State Governments.

How lots of the pairs given above are appropriately matched?

(a) Just one pair

(b) Solely two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) Not one of the pairs

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is progressively emphasising conceptual accuracy in financial and monetary instruments over rote information with terminology. A query separating bonds, authorities securities, and Treasury Payments demonstrates this pattern in testing candidates’ understanding of market classification.

Clarification

— The bond market reacted sharply on Monday because the benchmark 10-year authorities bond yield climbed to its highest degree in additional than a 12 months, a day after Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman offered the Union Funds and introduced a document gross borrowing plan for 2026–27.

— Bond: A bond is a debt instrument by which an investor loans cash to an entity (usually company or authorities) which borrows the funds for an outlined time frame at a variable or mounted rate of interest. Bonds are utilized by corporations, municipalities, states and sovereign governments to increase cash to finance a wide range of tasks and actions. Homeowners of bonds are debt holders, or collectors, of the issuer. Therefore, pair 1 is appropriately matched.

— G-Sec: A Authorities Safety (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Authorities or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Authorities’s debt obligation. Such securities are brief time period (often referred to as treasury payments, with unique maturities of lower than one 12 months) or long run (often referred to as Authorities bonds or dated securities with unique maturity of 1 12 months or extra). Therefore, pair 2 is just not appropriately matched.

— T-bills: Treasury payments or T-bills, that are cash market devices, are brief time period debt devices issued by the Authorities of India and are presently issued in three tenors, specifically, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury payments are zero coupon securities and pay no curiosity. Therefore, pair 3 is just not appropriately matched.

Due to this fact, choice (a) is the right reply.

(Different Supply: http://www.rbi.org.in)

QUESTION 3

The 1837 Serengsia Battle was:

(a) an armed resistance by Ho Adivasis in opposition to British East India Firm

(b) a revolt led by Santhal tribes in opposition to the Everlasting Settlement system

(c) a peasant rebellion in Bengal triggered by European indigo planters

(d) a princely revolt supported by regional zamindars in opposition to annexation

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is more and more emphasising tribal resistance and subaltern engagement within the liberation battle, turning away from elite-led nationalist teams to examine localised, early, and steadily armed opposition to colonial energy. It additionally corresponds to UPSC’s emphasis on micro-histories that illustrate the boundaries of East India Firm management.

Clarification

— On February 2, Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren attended a state occasion to mark an iconic act of Adivasi resistance in opposition to the East India Firm in 1837.

— This was a battle fought at Serengsia, a valley situated in present-day Jharkhand’s West Singhbhum district, the place Adivasi rebels exacted a heavy toll on British troopers — solely to face an important private value later.

— The Hos had been the unique, autonomous inhabitants of the Kolhan area, comprising Jharkhand’s present-day East Singhbhum, West Singhbhum, and Seraikela-Kharsawan districts.

— Round 1820-21, nonetheless, Kolhan fell beneath the jurisdiction of the Bengal Presidency. The British, who had been wanting to improve commerce with Madras, wanted direct management over the Adivasi areas resembling Kolhan to facilitate journey alongside the commerce routes. Round this time, the British arrange a camp within the Kolhan area’s Chaibasa space, sparking a year-long battle with the Hos.

— Lastly, in 1821, the Adivasis signed a treaty with the British. It certain them to pay eight annas per plough per 12 months to the native Hindu king and zamindars, allowed individuals from different communities to reside in Adivasi lands and imposed the Hindi and Oriya languages.

Due to this fact, choice (a) is the right reply.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the India-Russia power commerce, think about the next statements:

1. The India-Russia power commerce was round 2 per cent of India’s power imports earlier than the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

2. In 2024, the India-Russia power commerce reached a document excessive, with Russian oil imports comprising the majority of this commerce.

Which of the statements given above is/are appropriate?

(a) 1 solely

(b) 2 solely

(c) Each 1 and a couple of

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is more and more testing India’s exterior financial recalibration within the face of worldwide geopolitical shocks, notably the place commerce knowledge, strategic autonomy, and power safety work together. A query about India-Russia power commerce displays this shift towards evaluating candidates’ potential to discern shifting commerce patterns. It’s also per UPSC’s current emphasis on data-driven statements, making it notably pertinent for Prelims 2026.

Clarification

— The India-Russia power commerce was simply 2% of India’s power imports earlier than February 2022 (the Russian invasion of Ukraine). That elevated to greater than 32% over the subsequent few years. Therefore, assertion 1 is appropriate.

— Bilateral commerce between India and Russia reached a document excessive of $68.7 billion in FY 2024-25, with Russian oil imports comprising the majority of this commerce, amounting to $63.8 billion. India’s exports to Russia was a paltry $4.9 billion. Therefore, assertion 2 is appropriate.

Due to this fact, choice (c) is the right reply.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Graphics Processing Items (GPUs), think about the next statements:

1. India’s AI Mission subsidises GPU entry for startups and researchers growing AI fashions.

2. India has a neighborhood GPU manufacturing capability.

3. The Netherlands leads within the manufacturing of GPUs worldwide.

How lots of the statements given above are appropriate?

(a) Just one

(b) Solely two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

A query about GPUs highlights this transfer towards evaluating consciousness of AI as a compute-intensive area, the position of state help in democratising entry to high-end {hardware}, and India’s continued reliance on exterior ecosystems for important expertise. It’s also per UPSC’s emphasis on distinguishing between design, manufacturing, and tools management in semiconductors, making it a high-yield Prelims space for 2026.

Clarification

— As a part of their interim commerce settlement, India and the USA have introduced that they may “considerably improve commerce in expertise merchandise, together with Graphics Processing Items (GPUs) and different items utilized in knowledge facilities, and develop joint expertise cooperation”.

— Since India doesn’t have a neighborhood GPU manufacturing capability, with American corporations like Nvidia main the race globally, it’s understood that New Delhi will import these commodities to meet the ever-growing compute wants of its startups constructing AI fashions and purposes. Therefore, statements 2 and three usually are not appropriate.

— Beneath the not too long ago introduced Union Funds, the allocation for the IndiaAI Mission to Rs 1,000 crore in 2026-27 from Rs 2,000 crore this fiscal 12 months, elevating considerations over the nation’s AI push. India’s Rs 10,370 crore IndiaAI Mission subsidises GPU entry for startups and researchers growing AI fashions. Therefore, assertion 1 is appropriate.

— Beneath the Mission, about 40,000 GPUs have been put in thus far, which is extensively thought of as not sufficient computing capability for corporations, particularly on condition that particular person American corporations main the AI race have entry to considerably extra computing capability.

Due to this fact, choice (a) is the right reply.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the T-cells, think about the next statements:

1. These are a kind of crimson blood cells.

2. They’ll both kill the dangerous cells straight or sign different immune cells to be part of the battle.

3. These are central to immunotherapy.

Which of the statements given above is/are appropriate?

(a) 1 and a couple of solely

(b) 2 solely

(c) 2 and three solely

(d) 1, 2 and three

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is progressively integrating elementary organic rules with fashionable medical and expertise purposes, slightly than inspecting separate textbook info. A query on T-cells highlights this shift in the direction of measuring our understanding of key immunity methods alongside their real-world significance in cutting-edge therapeutics.

Clarification

— Immunotherapy is reshaping most cancers care by harnessing the physique’s personal immune system to battle tumours. Amongst its most promising varieties is CAR T-cell remedy, by which T-cells collected from a affected person are engineered in labs to recognise and destroy most cancers cells. However for this remedy to succeed, scientists should develop giant numbers of wholesome T-cells exterior the physique — and retrieve them.

— T-cells are a kind of white blood cells that act because the physique’s frontline troopers. They patrol the bloodstream and tissues, on the lookout for infections or irregular cells resembling most cancers. Once they detect a menace, T-cells both kill the dangerous cells straight or sign different immune cells to be part of the battle. Their potential to recognise and reply to illness makes them central to immunotherapy. Therefore, assertion 1 is just not appropriate and statements 2 and three are appropriate.

— CAR T-cell remedy is a cutting-edge therapy that reprogrammes T-cells to higher goal most cancers cells. Docs gather T-cells from a affected person’s blood and, within the lab, add a brand new gene that equips them with particular receptors referred to as chimeric antigen receptors (CARs). These receptors act like GPS trackers, guiding the T-cells to most cancers cells. As soon as engineered, the cells are grown in giant numbers and infused again into the affected person.

— Globally, CAR T-cell remedy has been authorised within the US and Europe for sure blood cancers resembling leukemia and lymphoma. It has proven dramatic success in sufferers who had exhausted standard therapies. Nevertheless, it stays costly, typically costing upwards of Rs 3-4 crore overseas, and continues to be being examined for strong tumours.

Due to this fact, choice (c) is the right reply.

QUESTION 7

Through which of the next years did the under-19 Indian cricket group win the World Cup?

1. 2008

2. 2018

3. 2024

4. 2026

Choose the right reply utilizing the codes given under:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 solely

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC sometimes utilises sports-related questions to assess consciousness of huge worldwide achievements that overlap with nationwide status and youth improvement, notably when such occasions get widespread coverage and media consideration.

Clarification

— The Board of Management for Cricket in India (BCCI) has introduced a Rs 7.5 crore money prize for the Indian Beneath-19 cricket group following their victory within the 2026 Beneath-19 World Cup. India defeated England by 100 runs within the closing at Harare Sports activities Membership on Friday to elevate the title for the sixth time.

(ICC Picture)

— India has gained the ICC Beneath-19 World Cup a document six instances, its most up-to-date victory being on February 6, 2026, in opposition to England in Zimbabwe/Namibia. Ayush Mhatre captained India to a 100-run victory within the 2026 closing. Beforehand, India gained in 2000, 2008, 2012, 2018, and 2022.

Due to this fact, choice (d) is the right reply.

QUESTION 8

The Strategic Arms Discount Treaty (START I & START II) had been signed between:

(a) Russia and India

(b) Russia and Germany

(c) India and the USA

(d) The US and Russia

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

A query in regards to the START treaties exemplifies this shift towards elevating understanding of Chilly Battle-era arms discount measures that proceed to affect fashionable nuclear technique, deterrence, and disarmament points.

Clarification

— The expiry of the New START Treaty, the final of the nuclear arms management pacts between the US and Russia, February 5 marks the tip of greater than 5 many years of bilateral agreements imposing mutual limits on the world’s two greatest nuclear arsenals.

— Following the tip of the Chilly Battle, the US and Russia signed the Strategic Arms Discount Treaty (START I) in 1991, which meant each international locations had to scale back the variety of deployed strategic arsenals (1,600) and the warheads they might carry (6,000).

— The collapse of the Soviet Union and extended efforts to denuclearise former Soviet bloc international locations meant the reductions beneath START I had been lastly accomplished in December 2001, and the treaty expired on the finish of 2009.

— START II, a follow-on accord that was signed in January 1993, required the 2 sides to scale back the variety of strategic warheads to 3,000-3,500 by 2003. However the settlement by no means got here into drive owing to delays in ratification by the respective legislatures of each international locations and after the US withdrew from the ABM Treaty in 2002, Russia formally stepped again from START II. Consequently, a proposed START III settlement by no means took off.

Due to this fact, choice (d) is the right reply.

QUESTION 9

Take into account the next statements:

1. The undertaking Cheetah was launched in 2023.

2. Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno Nationwide Park is the one house to the Namibian cheetah.

3. In India, the Asiatic cheetah was declared extinct in 1952.

How lots of the statements given above are appropriate?

(a) Just one

(b) Solely two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC frequently evaluates wildlife conservation by way of the attitude of coverage execution and historic context, slightly than viewing it as static environmental trivia. A query on Mission Cheetah exemplifies this method by mixing present conservation initiatives with elementary information like extinction pronouncements and species provenance.

Clarification

— 5 cubs had been born at Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno Nationwide Park to the Namibian cheetah. The whole cheetah inhabitants in India has risen to 35.

— The Mission Cheetah launched in 2022. Therefore, assertion 1 is just not appropriate.

— Kuno Nationwide Park in Madhya Pradesh is now the only location in India the place translocated Namibian (African) cheetahs are maintained. Therefore, assertion 2 is appropriate.

— Drawing on the 2013 Motion Plan and Supreme Court docket instructions, it goals to reintroduce the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus, declared extinct in India in 1952) as a flagship animal to promote ecosystem well being over broad expanses. Therefore, assertion 3 is appropriate.

Due to this fact, choice (b) is the right reply.

(Different Supply: http://www.pib.gov.in)

QUESTION 10

Take into account the next statements:

1. India’s agricultural export to the USA has persistently elevated from 2020 to 2025.

2. India maintained a commerce surplus in agricultural exports to the USA within the final decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are appropriate?

(a) 1 solely

(b) 2 solely

(c) Each 1 and a couple of

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this query for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is focusing extra on commerce composition and sector-specific balances, going past headline bilateral commerce knowledge to assess deep understanding of agriculture, market entry, and export competitiveness. A query about India-US agriculture commerce displays this tendency towards figuring out whether or not candidates can determine between long-term structural developments and short-term fluctuations.

Clarification

— Throughout January-November 2025, the US exported agricultural produce value $2.85 billion, a 34.1% leap over the $2.13 billion for a similar 11 months of the earlier 12 months. The exports for the entire of 2025 are set to high $3.1 billion, which might be an all-time excessive.

— India’s agricultural exports to the USA haven’t elevated persistently year-on-year from 2020 to 2025. Therefore, assertion 1 is just not appropriate.

— India has persistently maintained a commerce surplus in agricultural commerce with the USA during the last decade. Therefore, assertion 2 is appropriate.

— Alternatively, US imports of Indian farm produce have risen by solely 5.1%, from $5.62 billion in January-November 2024 to $5.91 billion in January-November 2025. America’s agricultural commerce deficit with India has correspondingly lowered from $3.5 billion to $3.1 billion. In 2024, the deficit was $3.8 billion (desk 1) and never $1.3 billion, as talked about by Secretary Rollins.

Due to this fact, choice (b) is the right reply.

Earlier Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 25 to January 31, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 18 to January 24, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 11 to January 17, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 04 to January 10, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 28, 2025 to January 03, 2026

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